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Culture War Roundup for the week of April 14, 2025

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What law specifically?

8 USC 1231(b)(3)(A). An immigration judge, using the Attorney General's delegated authority, found Abrego Garcia would be threatened if removed to El Salvador and granted a withholding a removal. There is not even an allegation by the government or anyone else that they followed any part of the procedure for revising this decision before they removed him. See also Johnson v. Guzman Chavez.

If authority is delegated by the Attorney General than it is ultimately the Attorney General's call whether Garcia can be removed. Someone should call Pam Bondi and inform her of the situation.

Yes. There is a process for Bondi to overturn the determination of an IJ and if that process had occurred before his removal, there is no question it would have been lawful.

Is that process defined by Congress, or by executive policymaking? Admittedly it could be some combination of both (policy specifically to implement details called out in law).

Policy making I believe, the statute itself doesn't describe a process. I suspect the real question is to what extent the AG's determination (which requires finding a specific category applies) is subject to judicial review.

It feels very germane to this issue that "immigration judge" is not a judicial-branch role here: it's someone the AG has delegated their Congress-given power to decide the merits of these immigration cases. Honestly, it's IMO a terrible name for the role because it's so misleading. It seems like the relevant questions in this case are less "the administration (and perhaps the AG specifically) disobeyed a judicial order" and more "the administration (and perhaps the AG specifically) didn't follow its own documented procedures": the former is a very legitimate separation of powers concern, while the latter is, still legitimately, more a question of proper procedures -- capriciousness, notice-and-comment requirements, and documentation.

Naively, "if the Attorney General decides that the alien’s life or freedom would be threatened" in (b)(3)(A) seems completely satisfied by the AG testifying "I have decided" regardless of what her delegates have documented in the past. That said, I am absolutely willing to accept procedural questions about what "decided" needs to mean for good governance, weighted against the idea that past executive branches shouldn't be able to forever bind future executive actions.

That's not a law. You're stretching.

You want to sat precedent and a judgment, sure.

This is why things like the Supreme Court exists.

The U.S. Code is, quite literally, the law of the land.

A judge made a interpretation. Other parts of the justice system disagrees.

This isn't nearly as cut and dry as you're trying to make it out to be.

Please read the rest of my comment

The rest of your comment doesn’t make sense!

@Gillitrut gave you the U.S. law which governs this situation, the act of Congress which established it, and a Supreme Court case specifying that yes, §1231 applies.

What “other parts” disagree?

Can you tell me in what sense it is not a law? It was passed by Congress in 1952 as part of the Immigration and Nationality Act. If this isn't a law, what is?

I suspect a confusion between U.S.C and C.F.R.