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Notes -
How can you tell the difference between overt political lawfare and the conviction of a felon by a jury of peers?
Wouldn't the assumption that any criminal punishment of a political candidate be considered 'lawfare' make it impossible to punish criminal politicians?
I'd say that when the incumbent prosecutor's election campaign was run on the basis of his experience going after that same candidate as part of a highly-politicized state AG's office, you have a pretty big tell that subsequent cases are more likely to be lawfare than legitimate.
Yes, the prosecutor ran on getting Trump and then went and did it. But none of that is relevant to the court system; the courts assume the integrity of the prosecutors and of the lower courts, and arguing that they lack integrity is a losing argument (even it it doesn't get you a contempt citation, which it might)
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Yes, I’ll bite the bullet and say that the leading candidates for major office shouldn’t be prosecuted for procedural crimes.
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It'd be nice to start with :
A law that is regularly and consistently applied, in this context, against normal people, for this level of sentence.
A judge that either does not have a record of donating significantly to the political opponent of That Politician, and does not have immediate family who fundraise against That Politician Specifically.
A prosecutor that did not campaign on finding the crime for the man.
That's circumstantial evidence of bias.
This is why it's important that they convinced 12 jury members.
I trust the jury to make the right decision, and they convicted Trump of felonies because he's a criminal.
That's interesting, I just got this notification around June 1 23:00 EDT.
The actual post you made, not so interesting. Is this supposed to even be a response to or defense of the question you sent to start? Or is it just the first rule of tautology club is the first rule of tautology club, and no conviction by a jury could possibly be overt political lawfare?
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