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Culture War Roundup for the week of February 17, 2025

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Legal contracts between consenting adults are not something I think the state should be able to veto. I'm admittedly pretty libertarian in my beliefs.

As an aside, bankruptcy is a notable exception to this with a long historical pedigree -- the State gets to abrogate perfectly consensual contracts and has had that right for centuries.

Somewhat understand this. At least one party is usually financially aware and responsible. If that can be priced into the product then the end result is that unreliable borrowers just don't get to be able to borrow money. If people are willing to accept that then so be it. My understanding is that they tend to complain about this result: "Banks wont lend money to the underclass"

Yup, and I totally understand this.

The weird thing, in my view, is that bankruptcy is an impairment on the fulfillment of a consensual contract that all parties actually want, in some sense. Lenders like it because it provides for orderly and final disposition of insolvent creditors. Creditors like it because it means they won't be on the hook indefinitely and can get another chance.

As such, it's a (small) thorn in the side of libertarian theory. I'm still broadly a squishy-libertarian, but it's an interesting theoretical topic. And it's certainly interesting to think about in a forum that isn't dominated by people trying to drunk using shitty internet gotchas.

If, as you say, all parties want it, then, were it not the law, it could simply be written into the contract. Contracts often have exit clauses or explicitly defined penalties for noncompliance. Loans generally don't because they're written in the context of a legal environment that guarantees exit via bankruptcy; it's implicit.

I'm not sure all parties do actually want bankruptcy protections, but either way I don't see how it threatens the theoretical basis for preserving the sanctity of contract.

I'm not sure what the clause "were it not the law" means. In any case, it's not implicit, but explicit, that a bankruptcy court has broad authority to modify or set aside any contract or part of a contract necessarily to achieve the objectives of bankruptcy law.

I also don't think it threatens the theoretical basis of sanctity of contract! This is a small thorn in that basis that is readily explainable and proves nothing about the general case. Again, this isn't the internet gotcha-game.