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I don't agree with that at all. To be Roman without involving the city of Rome is a completely incoherent idea. It didn't change.
I’m sorry to say, but you’re simply wrong about this, and any level of cursory knowledge of the Roman Empire would reveal this to you.
Literally millions of people living outside of Rome were considered Roman, even by the people living in Rome. They had the rights of citizens, they called themselves Roman, and other people called them Roman, including their enemies.
Contributions to Roman philosophy, literature and poetry frequently came from outside the city of Rome.
They followed and were subject to Roman law, practiced Roman rites of religion, when the empire converted to Christianity they did too, they had a “Roman way of life” that was particular to them ie culture.
It’s like thinking someone who lives in Dallas isn’t American just because at one point Texas was part of Mexico.
I'm willing to agree that people living in the Roman empire count as Roman. But once the polity doesn't include Rome, it isn't the Roman empire any more. Perhaps not immediately, but by the time the Byzantine empire collapsed it is absurd to call them "Roman" as they haven't had any relation to Rome for something like a thousand years.
Again, by your logic Taiwan is China - but they aren't, and if you refer to "China" nobody thinks you mean the little island of Taiwan too. Possession matters and you can't just ignore it.
If you take your argument here seriously, what's your opinion on Zionism? The jews didn't own Judaea for a very long time after all.
I mean, I don't think anyone is trying to claim that the nation of Israel existed all these years. Or at least I haven't seen people claiming that. Obviously it exists now, but that doesn't mean it did the whole time.
Yes, but I'm saying that your argument also means that they don't get to call themselves jews or count as Jewish if their polity doesn't include Judah, which it didn't for most of recorded history.
I'm not aware of "Jewish" ever being a term referring to a specific place the way "Roman" is, I guess. As far as I'm aware it refers to the name of the religion, not a place. Perhaps I am misinformed but either way it hasn't been on my radar as a result.
How about “Judea”?
When ancient Israel had a civil war, the territory controlled by the tribes of Judah and Benjamin was differentiated by name from the rest of the ten tribes, who kept the name “Israel”. Thereafter the Judeans and Israelites had separate kings, alliances, enemies, and historical run-ins with regional empires.
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It’s actually the reverse; by the time the Roman Empire was split the eastern portion of the empire had far outstripped the western portion of the empire in terms of wealth, power, population and prestige for more than a century.
In the Taiwan / China analogy, which I do t think even applies very well to premodern empires, you’re the one insisting Taiwan is China.
No I'm not, because I'm basing my argument on continuity with the location, not the line of succession for government. I have no idea how that isn't clear. Thus:
The Byzantine Empire could reasonably call themselves "Roman" at first, because they were the eastern part of the Roman Empire. At some point after the city of Rome fell, there was no Roman Empire because such an empire would have to include Rome. The prestige, power etc is irrelevant.
Taiwan is not China, even though the people are originally from China and consider themselves Chinese, because they don't occupy China. The prestige, power etc is irrelevant.
It doesn't matter what people call themselves, where they came from originally, or whether they are stronger than some other group. It is purely the location which matters.
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