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Because those "good faith" and "reasonableness" are two different standards in law, and the plaintiffs were trying to get the courts to accept a "good faith" standard when the statute required a "reasonableness" one.
Her legal protection was not revoked; she just didn't have it because she refused to commit to a "reasonable medical judgement". And yes, that means all three words.
No, it doesn’t. In the first footnote of their response, the Supreme Court defines “reasonable medical judgment.”
Which of these did Dr. Karsan not attest? More importantly, why doesn’t the Supreme Court specify?
Even if you don’t think the abortion was necessary—isn’t this perverse? The state is shooting down every attempt to clarify its laws before committing a potentially criminal act.
She did not attest to a medical judgement made by a reasonably prudent physician, only to a "good faith belief". This isn't mere words, they're different legal standards, and the pleading goes into this.
It shot down an attempt to lower the standard of judgement that was required by statute. This seems legally correct.
I agree with @MadMonzer that even if Texas prohibits abortion, they should have an exception for non-viability of the fetus. But they don't, and trying to add one by allowing physicians to lie without consequence about the danger to the mother (which is no doubt how Paxton views this) isn't legally sound.
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