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Notes -
I learned something new looking this up, that Scotland still had slaves in the coal mines until 1799, but my understanding is that England (and by extension Ireland and Wales) didn’t use slaves domestically simply because it hadn’t been accepted under common law since the 12th century.
It didn't stop them in the Caribbean, though.
Also, minor correction on my part. The British manumitted their slaves in 1838 - it was the French that kept them until 1848 before it was abolished. My apologies - it's been a while since I've cracked open those books.
That said, I'm perhaps being very cynical. But if I'm sure the British had required the manpower, they would have worked some legal and/or financial shenanigan out.
This is all pure supposition on my part, however, so feel free to ignore it.
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