I don't know to what extent there are established precedents for when a topic is worthy of a mega-thread, but this decision seems like a big deal to me with a lot to discuss, so I'm putting this thread here as a place for discussion. If nobody agrees then I guess they just won't comment.
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Notes -
I read through the 14th amendment and thought this was pretty much cut and dry myself. However, after discussing it with my SO, there is the problem that he has not been convicted of anything yet. Also, even if we were to say "Giving Aid and Comfort" -- well, explicitly he hasn't given money or legal aid to them, right?
So, in a court of law, is there sufficient condition met for the man to be excluded by 14th Amendment prior to him being convicted of this? It seems the Supreme court would probably throw all these out on straight constitutional grounds, no?
If he is convicted, though, whole different story. No questions, 14th amendment excludes him outright.
As I've said previously, I find it completely implausible to suggest a criminal conviction is required to apply section 3. That would mean that Jefferson Davis and Robert E Lee were not barred by it.
I’m of the opinion that conviction is sufficient, but not necessary.
It would be obvious that a convicted insurrectionist was ineligible, just as it would be obvious for an enemy general or president. Since neither is true in this case, we ought to pick some sort of threshold in between.
Basing it on a lawsuit is…alright, I guess. It might or might not have worked for Lee or Davis, depending on whether a local judge or jury corrupted the process. That’s not easy to avoid. It leaves me inclined to rely on a national-level decision for national-level candidates. Maybe for lower-level ones, too?
It’s a thorny problem, and I sympathize with the Colorado judges; they were definitely not happy to be in this position.
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The problem is that Colorado law requires invalid candidates to be removed from its ballots. It gives a timeline and procedure for making this happen via a lawsuit and a judge. As you observe, if Trump had been convicted (say, after his impeachment), the suit could just cite that.
Since he wasn’t, though, the Colorado court is in a bind. They are required to make a decision, which means they need someone to make a finding of fact. But other states are not necessarily so bound. I think this makes it really hard for the Supreme Court to affect other states. Finding that Colorado’s law violates due process, for example, would just leave us back where we were before they banned him.
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