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Culture War Roundup for the week of December 18, 2023

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The ruling is absurd, but the Constitution is pretty clear that states get to decide how their elections are run, including their national elections.

That's not really the way "judicial federalism" works, though. Yes, states have a lot of leeway in how they run elections, but this state is specifically appealing to the text of the federal Constitution in order to rule that he is ineligible. The fun history here to really drive the point home is that there are a lot of state Constitutions that have clauses that are word-for-word identical to the federal Constitution. Suppose that for some clause (not necessarily the one here), State A has a word-for-word identical clause in its state Constitution, but State B does not. Perhaps both states' Supreme Courts rule that that clause means X. Now, SCOTUS jumps in and says, "No no no, in the federal Constitution, that clause does not mean X." Well, State A's Supreme Court can (and some have in various cases) go back to the same issue and say, "Well, even if that clause in the federal Constitution doesn't mean X, we think that the same clause in the state Constitution means X." This has happened plenty of times. State B, on the other hand, has no such luck. The only thing they had to appeal to in this extremely sanitized hypothetical was the federal Constitution, and SCOTUS simply outranks them when it comes to interpreting what the federal Constitution means. [EDIT: Right after submitting, I realized that linking to this book is a good cite for an example of how this has definitely happened, concretely.]

"Judicial federalism" can work the other way, too. There are sometimes cases in the federal courts that turn on an interpretation of state law (or state Constitution). There have also definitely been examples where the federal courts essentially punt the question back over to the state Supreme Court, saying, "Yo! You guys need to tell us what your law means."

In this case, I don't believe Colorado has an equivalent-to-Section-3-of-14A in their state Constitution; they are purely interpreting the federal Constitution. As such, I don't think there's any reason why an appeal can't be made in the federal courts. There is a substantial federal question here, specifically that of interpreting the meaning of Section 3 of 14A of the federal Constitution.

[EDIT EDIT: Realize now that I should have read further in the comments; I was totally scooped. Oops.]