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Notes -
I am using the common notion of "more democratic" in which the larger a fraction of the population has the franchise, the more democratic the system is.
My understanding is that about 10-20% of ancient Athenians could vote, so by the common notion it was much less democratic than the modern US system, for example, in which maybe about 70-75% or so of the entire population can vote. I say about 70-75% based on some quick rough research about how many of the humans who live in the US are citizens older than 18, but I could be off a bit.
Would the USA be "more democratic" if toddlers could vote?
Obviously yes.
It wouldn’t be better, but it would be more democratic.
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