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I know, that's precisely what I was so confused by.
The idea that something as subtle and subjective as "mansplaining" can be ironclad evidence that a male person isn't really non-binary, but raping a woman with one's penis can't be taken as evidence that said person isn't really a woman - I don't pretend to understand it.
I mean, lesbian rape with a strapon is not super common and I'm guessing is even less likely to lead to conviction than other types of sexual assault.
But it doesn't make the assailant not a woman, and I don't really see how the artificial nature of the phallus is relevant to the metaphysics of the situation.
In the UK and Ireland, rape is defined as forcible penetration with a penis. It is a quintessentially male crime in that it is a crime that only male people are physically capable of committing.
That's what I'm trying to understand: I don't understand why "this allegedly non-binary person did something that men are stereotypically known to do (but which women are equally capable of doing, and are known to do less frequently than men) - therefore, they aren't really non-binary" but "this trans woman did something that only male people are physically and legally capable of doing, which female people couldn't do even if they wanted to - but that doesn't make her any less of a woman".
Well, the particular legal definitions used in the UK and Scotland have nothing to do with how progressives are thinking about these categories in the first place?
And I think most would probably say that legal definition is backwards and should be changed, if you asked them.
More broadly: I think the miscommunication here is that you're approaching it as 'what one test is disqualifying', whereas they are approaching it as 'what holistic cluster of traits and behaviors is qualifying'.
Because man/woman are very highly defined and explored categories, there are lots and lots of important things you can do to fit into one, such that a few individual noncentral divergences are ok.
Whereas 'nonbinary' is not an established category with tons of established and agreed upon signifiers, thus holistic-strength-of-fit is always comparatively weak and ephemeral, thus it's a lot easier to get disqualified for divergences.
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I think you're thinking about it backwards. In the mansplaining case, it's that "this specific human being standing in front of me did something I find annoying, and I lose one useful tool for attack if I acknowledge that person as non-binary instead of a man; therefore, he's a man." In the transwoman rape case, it's that "this theoretical transwoman (even if a specific person is referenced, the person remains theoretical because she's presumably not in direct contact with that transwoman) did something awful and distinctly male, but that doesn't affect me in any way; therefore, we should take her at her word that she's a woman in every single way that she wishes to be acknowledged." It's a sort of "luxury belief" situation. Believing that the person in front of her is non-binary has immediate and harsh consequences to her, and thus she can't afford to believe it, but believing that a transwoman who raped someone is a real woman in every way has no consequences for her in any way, and thus she can afford to believe it.
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