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? Yes, a law that explicitly on its face applies to a particular group is intentional discrimination against that group. But it isn't intentional discrimination against rural residents, even though such a ban would disproportionately affect rural residents. Similarly, the current ban on growing opium poppies intentionally discriminates against opium poppy farmers, but it isn't intentional discrimination against rural residents, even though it disproportionately affects rural residents.
But, speaking of intentional discrimination, do you know what is intentional discrimination? Geographically based houses, which intentionally discriminated against urban residents. But somehow that is ok? Because the correct team is being harmed?
First you need to prove that "one man one vote" is a right in the US -- it never was, and still isn't (as evinced by the process for electing Federal Senators).
Nor is there a right to raise cattle. The point is that you are being selective in your outrage about discrimination.
Note, btw, that the Fourteenth Amendment was designed to limit the states, not the federal govt, so the Senate is not particularly relevant. Plus, the Constitution says that "no State, without its Consent, shall be deprived of its equal Suffrage in the Senate." Just because all baleful discrimination cannot be eliminated does not mean that none can.
"Life, Liberty, and the pursuit of Happiness" ought to cover it.
A phrase which does not occur in the Constitution.
The constitution is not the sole source of law in the US.
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