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By providing dry info. X% of people with your condition day within Y days, Z% of people who take this treatment have a A% chance of living to age B.
I guarantee you that the doctors did not do that in this case.
I'm not a doctor, and I'm certainly not an expert in communicating with people. But is that how doctors communicate in other circumstances? Does a doctor who notices that you smoke simply provide dry info and leave it at that? From what I can tell, standards around informed consent focus on whether or not information has been provided in a legible way to the patient or caregiver, not on the fastidious maintenance of strict neutrality.
I don't know how this was presented, and neither do you. But it's a stretch to say that it was presented meaningfully differently from how other medical procedures are offered, i.e., it reflects the standard of care in medicine generally. And if your issue is with the standards for informed consent, why tie it to a controversial set of procedures where the public, at least, absolutely does not agree about the risks and benefits?
In short, the dialogue looks like this to me:
It looks like either you're holding gender-nonconforming medical interventions to a uniquely high standard, or you're expressing a general issue you have with medical-ethical standards in an unnecessarily controversial manner.
I do know it wasn't presented in the way I described, because if you plug in the relevant numbers you will not get anything that can be seen as pressuring the parents into having their child take blockers.
You originally claimed it is not possible for a doctor to give information about a medicine, so the patient can give informed consent, without pressuring them into taking it. You can't criticize me for holding blockers to a higher standard, when all I did was give an example you asked for.
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