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My position is that it's silly to say "the underclass back then wasn't really biologically inferior, but now they are."
Why? So we have one argument from the past about one group of people that you say was wrong (was it though?)
Why does that necessitate that a similar argument about a different group of people is wrong as well?
I didn't say it was wrong, assman did, more or less:
It would be surprising if previous claims of the biological inferiority of underclass groups turned out to be false but this time they were correct.
If you want to say, "the underclass was inferior back then, and they still are" that is a more consistent position.
I think they were back then and they are now. The idea is that in the absence of any discrimination at all, and the incredible living standards for even the most poor people, you need to search even lower on the totem pole to find the same kind of resentful people to form the most loyal members of the party.
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I don't think it's an inconsistent position to claim that the upwards mobility of somebody hailing from the underclass but with good biological dispositions has improved in the meantime, meaning that the people who are still in it have been selected for NOT having those traits. I am not sure this argument is true, but it is not inconsistent.
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It just seems like your position was trying to imply that "Bio"Leninism as a theory was wrong both then and now, and you try to demonstrate it's wrong by just associating it with far-right thinking.
But you do point out an inconsistency in the part of the post you quoted, but FWIW the original article on BioLeninism is consistent in the "both then and now position", and yes it is similar Stoddard's idea and the general thinking of ye-olde-racists... but that doesn't mean it's wrong:
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