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Notes -
no because the manufacturers will not allow you to get the drugs to do this test and there are civil and criminal penalties for obtaining them through deceit to do it (not to mention ethics boards and other gatekeepers)
also the original trials weren't double blind either, see Brook Jackson's whistle rblower complaint, among a long list of other issues
controlling for household income erases any claimed "efficacy" and that's even with the various dishonest bayesian games of categorizing who is and isn't "vaccinated"
these numbers are comically manipulated and various governments who were releasing the best data data when it supported their claims (and were subject to the bayesian games I talked about) either stopped doing this entirely or would only release manipulated numbers with made up denominators when those numbers flipped
My angle is that (1) the relevant mortality figure is over time, not “deaths from Covid”, because of potential complications of vaccine to longterm health and the fact that the vaccine is ineffective for mutations and post-8mo; (2) the “selection bias” effect means that people who opt in for health interventions are genuinely healthier, and this is exacerbated by the chronically ill Americans who are more likely to opt out of all health interventions (alcoholics, addicts, agoraphobics, hoarders, schizophrenics, morbidly obese and others); (3) the cultural divide among vaccination is significant because of differences in urban versus rural health / obesity / diabetes, stress and occupational hazard in blue collar labor, differences in drug and alcohol consumption
Wealth variables are a workable proxy for (2) and (3) at least in the US. I suspect this is because wealth correlates to something else and that something else is the better proxy for pretty much all life outcomes, health included. As far as I know, I've never seen a public health or science publication on vaccine efficacy which makes adjustments for the health/wealth correlation. Once you notice it, you start to notice a pattern of how the gap is used to manipulate results on health interventions, e.g., where trial sites are chosen, which populations are recruited, what is controlled for, etc.
One interesting thing I remember from 2021 which hits on this topic was some backwards looking efficacy numbers for the early injection campaign. One example I remember provides evidence for your selection bias hunch; the injections seemingly reduced mortality rates for things outside of covid19 or related illness. The report takes number from the CDC October VSD report. Look at the standardized mortality rate at the end of the report. Look at the relative mortality risk by age group. Wow, it's 60-70% effective at preventing non-Covid mortality! This thing is a wonderdrug!
Or there is something else which explains this obvious nonsense. When you look up total mortality for these age groups, you find car accidents, suicides, and homicides, account for approx. 80% of all mortality in these younger groups. In order to accept these at face value, you would have to believe covid injections are at least ~25-30% effective at preventing motorcycle accidents, suicide, and being shot by others.
additionally, you would also need to account if there were different treatment protocols for injected and uninjected, e.g., in the US, people without the injection were more likely to receive remdeathivir when looking at comparison numbers among a wide variety of other issues, one of which you've hit on
total mortality is heavily correlated with covid vaccine rollouts to the point where you can tell when mass campaigns began at different times in different countries across the world by looking at their mortality and covid numbers
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