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Notes -
This is exactly the opposite of my experience of how the phrase is used. Consider the opening paragraph of this Time article:
To your next point:
Then how come a Democrat won the presidency in 1960?
Not OP but I imagine his argument would be that the policies of 1960's Democrats would have more in common with today's Republicans than today's Democrats.
Of course, but even in the sixties the Democrats were radically more economically and socially progressive than the Republicans. During the campaign, Republicans accused JFK of being a closeted socialist on the back of his healthcare policy proposals, and JFK appealed to black voters by publicly showing his support for Martin Luther King. If the argument is that "white Americans as a group can always be presumed to vote for the more socially and/or economically conservative of the two candidates", that invites the question of how JFK was elected in the first place, given the demographics of the 1960s.
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