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No, because then you support extra-judicial violence in a democratic system predicated on state monopoly of violence. By that logic, anyone who really thinks that X-group or Y-person is really, really, really not good has permission to kill their enemies.
At what point (if any) of his political career do you think the assassination of Hitler would be justified by his opponents?
I'll reframe your question thusly;
At what point did Hitler's authority become illegitimate and unable to be corrected by the functions of the German state?
I think the Enabling Acts of 1933 were pretty much that point. Explicitly extra-legislative and supra-constitutional.
Is any assassination attempt on Hitler at that point therefore valid? Eh, I'm and end-to-end pro-lifer (don't like abortion, don't like death penalty) so I'd've preferred to see some sort of pseudo-state-vigilante-police action. You know, arrest Hitler on behalf of "Free Germany" or something.
But we're playing with counterfactuals within counterfactuals wrapped in hypotheticals. So it's all Dungeons and Dragons. Furthermore, intentionally or not, I've been misled into a "tRumP iS HitLER" online discussion. So, really, I guess I'm the asshole.
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