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Notes -
That probably already happens with pardons. See Bill Clinton.
There is a discussion of whether there can be a post presidency impeachment. I see why not if doing so is a necessary step to remove the immunity.
The flip side is with the right venue shopping the opponents can easily make cases against the prior president. That seems like a bigger problem compared to obvious corruption.
I think the easy ruling should’ve been “when president is acting qua president he cannot be sanctioned until impeached and convicted.” The impeachment process is the closest thing to a true jury of peers.
The outcome of an impeachment is, at worst, removal from office. Nothing about impeachment appears to grant anyone authority to strip absolute immunity conferred to actions taken pursuant to constitutionally granted powers of the President while the President was President.
ETA:
I'd read that as allowing subsequent prosecution, but not somehow removing absolute immunity from actions taken while still the President. If not, you could plausibly impeach and try every president immediately after they leave office, or whenever an opposing party gets a majority in the Senate, for crimes even intended to be obviated by the president's official powers. In which case, why grant immunity at all?
Let me respond to your edit.
I don’t think the structure of the sentence suggest a separate unrelated offense. The first part of the clause tells us that impeachment and conviction goes no further than removal from offense (ie there is no jail sentence). We then told however that if the law brings the president up on charges he now could be subject to a jail sentence. The natural read to me is they are talking about the same offense (ie what would be the relevance of a future crime). No I think this is to head of discussions that the first crime was already adjudicated.
The constitution requires if memory serves 2/3 of the senate (ie super majority). It would be pretty much impossible to have a conviction absent bipartisan support whereas with the right venue the ex president could be subject to criminal liability purely by his partisan opponents.
The constitution clearly delineates between "Law" and "Impeachment", and the two are unrelated. I see the word "nevertheless" here meaning "this clause is about impeachment, not about the method of criminally prosecuting the president in spite of their absolute immunity", rather than "but if you remove them from office, you can now also do this other stuff".
I could be wrong, and if so I think you make a compelling argument for what right looks like.
Edit: See The_Nybbler's point here.
I agree there is a delineation. But given that no where does the constitution mention absolute immunity, it seems like a reasonable way to square the circle here given that ultimately this is a question of separation of powers.
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I think the idea would be that if Congress determines those actions were high crimes and misdemeanors, then they were ultra vires and therefore not entitled to immunity.
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