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Hell yes, but you're late.
I mean Brown v Board was wrongly decided, that it was the royal court proclaiming that segregation must end, in direct opposition to the citizens, and their elected representatives. That Brown v Board was only enforced at the end of a gun, after a group of 9 took it upon themselves to read into the law what had not been written.
A pattern I have noticed since then, especially with Obergefell v Hodges and Bostock v Clayton County. Again the court reads into the law what was never written, and refuses to allow the legislature as elected by the citizenry to legistlate.
Lies and propaganda, mostly. They said it wouldn't change the character of the nation, and on that basis, it was unopposed. That was a lie, of course, and it's easy to tell that now, where at the time it was hard.
Why not?
It is not the Supreme Court's job to reflect the will of the 'citizens and their elected representatives'.
This is the more relevant criticism, however I don't think it's fair at all. That segregated education denied African-Americans the 'equal protection of the laws' would seem to me pretty obvious. After all, if there really was no difference in the education being received, then why was segregation necessary? Even the lower court whose decision Brown overturned conceded that segregation ipso facto entailed an unequal education.
Simply following the text of a law through to its logical conclusion and then applying it is not 'reading into the law what was never written' - or rather, it might be, but one must also read into a law what is logically implied by it.
If this is true, then why, when immigration did increase substantially in the following decades, was the backlash, all things considered, rather muted?
It wasn't necessary, it was chosen by the voters, as is their right to do in a constitutional republic. The court should have enforced the equal part of separate but equal, because there's no reason why segregation necessarily requires unequal treatment before the law.
We know now, decades after, that integration doesn't make the negro child equal to the white child. The ruling was based on logic that was disproved by reality. It is not the segregation which keeps the negro child behind today, and it was not segregation which kept him behind then, either.
That is irrelevant, whether or not it is true. Segregation need only to have adversely impacted the education of black children in any way, and to any non-zero extent, in order to be impermissible (and, also, one cannot criticise the Brown decision on the basis of putative information not available at the time). There was every reason, and still is now, to believe that segregation ipso facto prevented the provision of an equal education. For one thing our prior should be very high that segregated education impacted outcomes - would it not be quite astonishing if integrated and segregated systems merely happened to produce the same outcomes? In turn, the African-American was always going to come off worse in the latter system. Put it this way. Is there anywhere in the South you can point to that had established a reasonably equal segregated education system by the time of Brown? If none of them achieved it within well over half a century, it was quite plainly never going to happen.
The (pretty well unanimous) conclusions of research conducted prior to Brown into the issue of the impact of segregation and institutionalised discrimination on the development of black children is well summarised here, from p. 139 on.
https://archive.org/details/personalityinmak0000midc/page/138/mode/2up
Segregationists did not give a damn about rights in a constitutional republic, nor about the will of the people, hence their systematic attempts to disenfranchise black voters. The South has only itself to blame - segregated education was never going to be equal when managed by unrepentant racists. Segregation may have been chosen by the (white) voters of the relevant states, but its abolition was likewise chosen by the nation's voters at their federal elections, as is their right.
Is there evidence that education of African-Americans is any better today?
There's that one 'experiment' in Kansas City with a judge throwing millions of dollars at black education to improve it that apparently failed.
The problem I see with 'desegregation' is that at some point you run out of white children to 'integrate' with your children who desperately need an 'integrated' education for whatever reason.
Is there some kind of breeding program to address this?
Would you have a reference of a discussion of these results? I really wouldn't know where to look for something like that.
I could see a number of HBD-compatible explanations for these results. For example the development in race relations which caused the end of segregation has been having an effect on the genetic structure of the 'black' population. While inter-marriage was common during segregation, it is probably more common now. Moreover, it's possible that the children of these mixed unions identify in a different way than they would have 70 years ago.
Here is an analogy from Australia: Indigenous award recipients. Perhaps 2 or 3 of the people pictured look like they have obvious Aboriginal ancestry, 80% would probably pass as 'white'.
I imagine that Americans who could convincingly represent themselves as 'white' in the 1950s probably would, as this would most likely open doors to them. Up to 10% of African ancestry was found in Americans who identify as 'white'. Now in 2024, there are obvious incentives to self-identify as 'black'. People like Barack Obama or Jordan Peele who do look 'black', still had a 'white' mother. Conceivably, they could have a sibling that would look a lot 'whiter' and they could be just as well-achieving. If the 'black' student population of today is actually a lot 'whiter' than before, it's hard to tell if the gains have anything to do with a change in how the education is actually delivered.
Another factor to consider would be that the education system is very much focused on delivering 'good' results on the 'black' education front. It's possible that the way some of these institutions work is influencing the measurements of the outcomes. Perhaps, in the same manner as the progressive DAs immediately release violent offenders without bail, there is some kind of 'systemic anti-racism' at play that would contribute to these alleged gains.
I'm very much curious to read what they attribute the gains to.
Better access to more competent teachers ('white' ones)? Passive diffusion of so-called 'white' values from the 'white' pupils to the 'black' ones? More money taken from 'white' taxpayers? General lowering of expectations as a consequence of the ruin of society brought about by the same forces that ended segregation?
Some stuff here; https://cepa.stanford.edu/educational-opportunity-monitoring-project/achievement-gaps/race/
I don't think this can account for the 1970s and 1980s improvement in black performance. By 1980 black inter-racial marriage rates were a whopping 5%, a figure which increased only quite slowly and gradually over the following years, not really compatible with the quickest convergence being during those years. There is the question you raise about changes in identification, but again I don't think that was occurring - not in most of the country anyway - to any significant extent during the fastest years of decline (during the years to which that data goes back).
That doesn't seem too likely given the nature of the data. It's from the National Assessment of Educational Progress tests, who administer their own nationwide tests to students, which are (obviously) the same for every race. Could there be some increased level of teaching to the tests etc. from teachers/schools in order to boost their numbers. Maybe? But again if this were so you'd surely expect the strongest effect of that to be now, when the schools are under pressure to improve equitable outcomes etc., not in the 1970s. And wouldn't we see that reflected across the board, not just in black students? If this was a case of schools/districts marking their own homework, no pun intended, then one might be more suspicious but I don't think it is.
Well to be clear, if it were either of these that would validate the Brown decision, because it would prove that segregation was lowering the relative quality of the education received by black students.
What forces do you suppose these to have been? I would put the Cold War and WW2 pretty high on the list of things that ended segregation, not sure they brought about the ruin of society though.
Thank you for the source, unfortunately I didn't see an explanation for what is causing these gaps to shrink slightly.
So should the Department of Education start subsidizing 'white' birthrates to ensure an adequate supply of 'white' students to improve education for everybody or?
Modernity, hubris, the Evil One... it's hard to say. Whatever reason there was to blow up a somewhat functional society at the time, even for a lack of foresight, blind optimism, carelessness... Hard lessons the future will have to learn. One should not concern themselves with slippery slopes but with slippery slopes leading to slipperier slopes. Each of our stumbles makes the next more acceptable and the very idea of a stumble confused.
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