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Right, the consensus is that Mark was written around 60-70 AD, which is consistent with my point. Q, the theorized other source of Luke and Matthew, would probably have been written around or before the same time.
I disagree with this--contextual evidence, especially how we both seem to agree that before 70 AD Christianity was essentially seen as a branch of Judaism, suggests that it did make plenty of headway among the Jews. This is a good place to mention my problems with researching these things. The first source found points to this paper which says:
This is an utterly absurd analysis, basically pulled out of a hat. Acts mentions in the first few chapters nearly ten thousand people in Jerusalem (we can assume Jews) who converted; the rest of the analysis is devoted to casting doubt on those numbers because it would be a sizeable proportion of Jerusalem. The numbers mentioned specifically refer to pilgrims, though, not to the normal Jewish population. It's very clear about this:
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The whole field is just a cesspool of speculation. There are many arguments for/against how many Jewish converts there were in the early Christian church but I find the arguments for large numbers more convincing. I find it more likely that Jewish converts married into the Gentile church and thus mostly disappeared, ethnically and culturally, within a few generations. The book of Matthew wasn't directed towards the Jews on a whim--they were the foundation of early Christianity.
Because he was appointed by the Romans. Anyone who would fabricate events wholesale just to blame Jews would also obviously treat Herod and the Roman occupation more positively. You'd probably have all sorts of examples of Romans miraculously being converted because there faith was so much greater than that of the Jews, or of Romans protecting Jesus from the wicked Jewish leaders.
I can't imagine anyone would fabricate such events just to blame the Jews without going further anywhere else. Why not say the Sanhedrin stoned Jesus? Why not allow Jesus to say something about how great the Romans are and we should all be like them? Why not write in a single Roman convert or apostle?
Generally the idea that these things were inserted just to make the Gospel more palatable to the Romans seems really far-fetched.
My bad, I thought I read that somewhere but now I can't find it. Still--the popular conception of the Messiah as one who leads a revolt against Rome, combined with the wording that he had a group of about four hundred men, to me strongly implies he was an anti-Roman rebel, not just a prophet.
Also, I believe those are different Theudas's, or one of the mentions is incorrect.
There may not have been a shoot on sight order, but Christians were executed just for being Christians. My original point was that mentioning eyewitnesses by name might be dangerous for them; the fact that a tipoff (even an anonymous one, as of the letter) that you were Christian could get you executed more than qualifies as dangerous.
Pliny's letter was written nearly fifty years after the Neronian persecutions so it's fairly weak evidence for the state of Christian persecution at the time the Gospels were written.
This assumes the gospels were not actually written by Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John, which is highly debatable. There's little need to explicitly say "I know this because I saw myself" if it's clear from the format that you're speaking from firsthand experience.
No, they don't. Matthew describes a post-resurrection appearance, as does Luke. Neither asserts that these appearances are his first. Acts mentions that Jesus visits the apostles many times over a 40 day period.
Sure, all differences can be reconciled with some work, but the amount of work necessary is crucial. I think the account of Judas' death is contradictory and probably indicates missing/altered text, while the Resurrection accounts are decently compatible with each other.
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