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That is my point. It ISN'T that way, which is why your hypothetical is not particularly germane.
Again, that is what authors of real laws usually do.
No, that is not quite right. We know what types of remedies are available for torts. That is quite well established. What we don't know is what the damages will be in this particular case. Eg: if I am wrongfully denied admission to Harvard, and have to go to Purdue instead, then my damages would be something like the present value the difference between the income I am likely to earn in my life as a Purdue grad versus what I likely would have earned as a Harvard grad. And that, of course, depends on things like my major; if I am a Social Work major, then my damages are going to be less than if I am a Business major, and if I am a Civil Engineering major, I might have no damages at all.
It's not just that we don't know what the damages will be in this specific case, it's also that we don't know what the damages will be in the generic racial-discrimination-in-university-admissions case. At best, we know that the penalty in this case will be a subset of the remedies in tort law, and that in future cases like this one, the remedies will also be a subset of the remedies in tort law, though not necessarily the same subset. This is only slightly more helpful than not knowing anything at all. Knowing that the available remedies for torts are X, Y, and Z is like knowing that the remedies for a foul in soccer are free kicks, penalty kicks, yellow cards, red cards, lifetime ban, etc. The part that you really want to know is what the algorithm is for figuring out which of those remedies applies in any specific case.
Is this a statement of what you think will happen or is this what you think should happen? That is, do you think that as of this ruling, every White and Asian person who has been rejected from any AA-practicing university in the past few decades will be able to sue successfully for monetary damages equal to the drop in expected earnings they suffered? Alternatively, is there established tort law that says "when a university wrongly denies admission to someone, the damages are to total the loss in expected earnings, no more, no less"?
The reason I'm trying to nail down a specific penalty is because it sounds like the current system is a judge flipping a coin to decide whether to take your case and then pulling a number out of an ass for the damages, which is very much The Rule Is Whatever I Say It Is Because I Am In Charge.
I can assure you that that is not the case. First of all, why you think courts have discretion not to take a case is beyond me. As for damages, there are entire books published on the subject of tort damages and a whole slew of jury instructions on the topic. And see here:
Why wouldn't every decision apply retroactively? When a court interprets a law in a precedent-setting way, isn't the idea that the law is and has always been that way, and that earlier courts had simply gotten it wrong? If this specific case of SFFA v. Harvard had featured a specific plaintiff, wouldn't that person be entitled to damages? If so, why that person and not others? It seems to me that all decisions of this nature must be applied retroactively by virtue of the fact courts typically rule on events that happened in the past.
That's fair. We can limit it to the last few years. I don't think this changes much.
This takes me back to my original point, which is that if this is truly the case, then the law isn't If You Discriminate On The Basis Of Race Then You Have To Pay That Person Some Amount of Money. It's If You Discriminate On The Basis Of Race Then Nothing Happens To You Because No One Person Can Prove Anything. I appreciate you educating me on tort law (I mean this sincerely; sorry if I come across as combative but I do appreciate the lesson on something I know very little about) but it's kind of irrelevant if we never get to the point where damages are being calculated.
That said, is the standard of proof really that an applicant has to show that they would have been admitted but for their race? For employment discrimination, as far as I'm aware, you don't have to prove that you would have been hired/not-fired but for your race/sex/etc. You only need to prove that your protected group status was a significant factor in the decision. Is university admissions different, and if so, is that difference spelled out in law?
Maybe "take a case" is not the step where attempts at justice are thwarted, but my impression is that it is often the case that people are in theory legally entitled to some compensation but cannot reach the point where a court issues a decision on their complaint. My point is that in order for "AA is illegal" to be true, there must be a reliable way for an entity that engages in AA to be penalized for that violation, and from what you said and what I see, it doesn't look like that will be the case.
There are many attorneys who make a very good living representing victims of illegal discrimination. Moreover, class actions are often an option. Were there truly no remedy, defendants would not settle suits. But they do.
And note that attorneys fees in successful civil rights suits, which are paid by defendants, can often be much greater than the damages. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uzuegbunam_v._Preczewski
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