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How UN manipulates the Gender Development Index

I think that UN manipulating it's own index is not culture wars even if the index is related to gender. Let me know if I am wrong.

Human development

The Gender Development Index (GDI), along with its more famous sibling Human Development Index (HDI) is a an index published annually by UN's agency, the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). Whether an index is manipulated or not can be judged only against a precise definition of what the index claims to be measuring. So how do you measure human development? Whatever you do, you will never capture all nuances of the real world - you will have to simplify. The UNDP puts it this way:

The Human Development Index (HDI) was created to emphasize that people and their capabilities should be the ultimate criteria for assessing the development of a country, not economic growth alone.

So the UNDP defines the Human Development Index as a geometric mean of three dimensions represented by four indices:

Dimension Index
Long and healthy life Life expectancy at birth (years)
Knowledge Expected years of schooling (years)
Mean years of schooling (years)
Decent standard of living Gross National Income (GNI) per capita (2017 PPP$)

Source: https://hdr.undp.org/data-center/human-development-index#/indicies/HDI

Gender Development

So far so good. Next, on it's website the Gender Development Index (GDI) is defined like this:

GDI measures gender inequalities in achievement in three basic dimensions of human development: health, measured by female and male life expectancy at birth; education, measured by female and male expected years of schooling for children and female and male mean years of schooling for adults ages 25 years and older; and command over economic resources, measured by female and male estimated earned income.

Source: https://hdr.undp.org/gender-development-index#/indicies/GDI

While in the actual report HDI it is simply defined as a ratio of female to male HDI values:

Definitions - Gender Development Index: Ratio of female to male HDI values.

Source: https://hdr.undp.org/system/files/documents/global-report-document/hdr2021-22pdf_1.pdf

Let's look, for instance, at the Gender Development Index of United Kingdom. The value 0.987 means that despite longer life and more education, in UK, females are less developed than males.

Dimension Index Female value Male value
Long and healthy life Life expectancy at birth (years) 82.2 78.7
Knowledge Expected years of schooling (years) 17.8 16.8
Mean years of schooling (years) 13.4 13.4
Decent standard of living Gross National Income (GNI) per capita (2017 PPP$) 37,374 53,265

Source: https://hdr.undp.org/system/files/documents/global-report-document/hdr2021-22pdf_1.pdf

Wait, what?? What does it mean that females in UK have command over economic resources of post Soviet Estonia (GNI Estonia=38,048) while males in UK have command over economic resources of EU leader Germany (GNI Germany=54,534)?

The manipulation

The UNDP calculates separate command over economic resources for females and males, as a product of the actual Gross National Income (GNI) and two indices: female and male shares of the economically active population (the non-adjusted employment gap) and the ratio of the female to male wage in all sectors (the non-adjusted wage gap).

The UNDP provides this simple example about Mauritania:

Gross National Income per capita of Mauritania (2017 PPP $) = 5,075

Indicator Female value Male value
Wage ratio (female/male) 0.8 0.8
Share of economically active population 0.307 0.693
Share of population 0.51016 0.48984
Gross national income per capita (2017 PPP $) 2,604 7,650

According to this index, males in Mauritania enjoy the command over economic resources of Viet Nam (GNI Viet Nam=7,867) while females in Mauritania suffer the command over economic resources of Haiti (GNI Haiti=2,847).

Let's be honest here: this is total bullshit. There are two reasons why you cannot use raw employment gap and raw wage gap for calculating the command over economic resources:

Argument 1

Bread winners share income with their families. This is a no brainer. All over the world, men are expected to fulfil their gender role as a bread winer. This does not mean that they keep the pay check for themselves while their wives and children starve to death. Imagine this scenario: a poor father from India travels to Qatar where he labours in deadly conditions, so that his family can live a slightly better life. According to UNDP, he just became more developed, while the standard of living his wife is exactly zero.

Argument 2

Governments redistribute wealth. This is a no brainer too. One's command over economic resources and standard of living is not equal to ones pay check. There are social programs, pensions, public infrastructure. Even if you have never earned a pay check yourself, you can take a public transport on a public road to the next public hospital. Judging by the Tax Freedom Day, states around the world redistribute 30% to 50% of all income. And while men pay most of the taxis (obviously, they have higher wages) women receive most of the subsidies (obviously, they have lover wages). But according the UNDP, women in India (female GNI 2,277) suffer in schools and hospitals of the war-torn Rwanda, while men in India (male GNI 10,633) enjoy the infrastructure and social security of the 5-times more prosperous Turkey.

Don't get me wrong, the employment gap and pay gap are not irrelevant for the standard of living and command over economic resources. Pensions and social security schemes mostly do not respect the shared family income and as a result the partner doing less paid work - usually a women - gets lower pension, unemployment benefit etc. What's worse, the non-working partner is severely disadvantaged in case of divorce or break up. But while this has an impact on each gender's standard of living it certainly does not define 100% of that value.

Argument 3

You may argue that the command over economic resources measured by estimated earned income is some kind of proxy for all other disadvantages women face in society. But do you remember what I said in the beginning?

Whether an index is manipulated or not can be judged only against a precise definition of what the index claims to be measuring.

The HDI measures "people and their capabilities" and the GDI is a ratio of these capabilities measured separately for men and women. The economic dimension of the GDI is supposed to be standard of living or command over economic resources - neither of which can be represented by earned income alone.

The taboo

Wikipedia says: "For most countries, the earned-income gap accounts for more than 90% of the gender penalty." (I have not verified this.) This is important, because when we look at the other two dimensions it becomes clear that while men have shorter and less health lives they also increasingly fall behind in mean and expected years of schooling. Without the misrepresentation of the command over economic resources value, the index would show something very uncomfortable: that according to UN's own definition of Human Development men are the less developed gender.


PS: Is there a way to give those tables some borders and padding?
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No, your personal values are not obviously correct

Good thing I never said they were, then.

Please refrain from making accusations of bad faith.

Bad faith is a spectrum, and to my eyes you seem to be nitpicking and looking for areas where I'm wrong rather than looking for common ground or mutual understanding. This isn't pure bad faith but it is very unpleasant and counterproductive. For example, you keep trying to litigate past points and how wrong they were rather than moving the discussion forward. More annoyingly, you keep rewording my points. I don't know why you are behaving this way, but it is evident that you are.

I see no evidence that, before I mentioned it, you or any of the other critics even considered for a moment that availability of data is even a relevant factor in constructing an index. Nor do I see any evidence that the lacunae in the data you suggest being added are less than or equal to those in the data being used currently.

You say this, but you haven't put in the work to verify the currently used data either. Don't accuse me of not caring about the accuracy of the existing index if you've done significantly less work to confirm that veracity yourself. As I already mentioned, and as you keep ignoring, the suggested alternatives were not meant to have much weight to them anyways and were very off-the-cuff.

You seem a lot more concerned with going back and relitigating this point over and over again, attacking my suggestions which I've admitted three times now are not meant to be taken very seriously, rather than allowing the conversation to continue forward. Like a dog playing tug of war you just won't let go even though the game is obviously meaningless. What more do you want from me? I have said they were poorly thought-out, lack important information that the currently-used measures have, and are probably not suitable alternatives. Must I grovel and beg for you to feel satisfied with dropping this point, or will you continue to bring it up until I'm forced to ignore you entirely? Conversations move on.

I don' t believe that it the case, because "[t]he female (or male) income share is computed by multiplying the ratio of the female (male) wage to the average wage by the female (or male) share of the economically active population."

This is precisely what it means to include nonworking population in the average.

Let's say women earn $90 for every $100 men make, and work 50% as much. The measure thus multiplies the wage ratio (0.9) by the share of active population (0.5) and arrives at 0.45. This is mathematically equivalent to what I am describing.

You are making unwarranted assumptions about the ability of women in many countries to forego work entirely.

No I'm not, what I said makes zero assumptions about that ability. If you think it does, name any one single assumption I made.

Regardless, a country in which 70% of women work, aat 1/2 the average male wage, is quite different from a country in which 70% of women work, at 95% of the male wage.

OK? Never said or implied it wasn't.

Except that it is not meant to pick up exclusion per se, but rather the effect of that exclusion on income. Surely it does that better than merely measuring labor force participation, which does not directly measure income at all.

Yes, of course the measure that measures income measures income better than the one that measures workforce participation, lol. That's obviously not what my point was.

That was certainly not the original claim, which was much stronger

Must we relitigate this again? My original claim was that this measure had flaws. It was not any stronger than the one mentioned above. If by "original claim" you mean the one where I said the measure was a lie, that was objectively not my original claim, and also was not my central claim, but rather my motivation for making the central claim (which is that the measure is flaws).

How do you know it is less useful and more biased than most? What indexes have you compared it to? Have you looked to see if there is research regarding the extent to which the index corresponds with other measures of what it purports to measure? You make strong assertions of fact based on what appears to be little more than personal opinion.

Isolated demand for rigor, have you done so? Must I somehow create a meta analysis of all indices just to make the claim that a single one is more biased than average? This is just hilarious, and objections like this are a big part of why I think your responses have been at least partially in bad faith. Generally, when normal people talk, they make claims like "that job is harder than average" without necessarily needing access to comprehensive data pools to back up their claims. See, I did it just now, without a comprehensive data pool to back up my claim that this is normally how people talk.

Google tells me that is from an NIH publication, which cites a 2018 publication by the European Institute for Gender Equality. Do you have any evidence that that is the definition used by the GDI?

Why would it need to be used by the GDI? I am talking about common usage, as I clearly indicated by stating it was the first googled result.

?? Such claims are pretty much central to the woke perspective on the issue.

Look, [gender inequality] is a specific thing which everyone generally agrees is bad. If someone says "women are not equal to men", without qualification, that's generally seen as wrong. There's no need for clarification, nobody assumes "ah of course he meant in less important ways such as average height." Without clarification it is assumed that such claims are made more generally, which is why when people make them to prove some other point, such as yours about how men and women differ in height etc., they always follow up with lots of clarification. Similarly, you obviously understood what I meant, but decided to correct it anyways, unnecessarily.