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Notes -
I think my point here is that these have never, actually, been different things in practice.
Libertarian types talk about the invisible hand as though it were the abstract ideal case where every consumer has access to every possible product and perfect knowledge to make the best choice for themselves and products only ever succeed or fail based on those choices.
But they also invoke the invisible hand to justify real things that happened in real markets, which never, ever work like that.
Those two version of the term are inextricably confounded with each other already, at least in political discourse.
So it's an isolated demand for rigor if you point at the market responding to things you don't like and say 'that's not the invisible hand, there's real politik involved that's different from the ideal hypothetical case that term refers to!', then the next day invoke the invisible hand to justify some outcome of the market that you like.
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