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Notes -
Well, actually...
It could be argued that any righteous Mormon man (and what could be more righteous than rescuing children from sex slavery) has the right, nay, the obligation, to share his righteousness with as many celestial wives and spirit children as possible.
Take that page with a heap of salt. Much of it is outright falsehood, and much of the remainder more misleading than not.
For example, there's a whole section about how women can't be exalted except through men, and are thus otherwise denied salvation. This is false on two levels:
Salvation is different from exaltation. People are saved with no regard to marital status, making the second half of the claim an outright lie.
Men also cannot be exalted without women, making the first half misleading enough that it is essentially a lie. The implication is that righteousness flows forth from men to women, when the reality is just that marriage to a member of the opposite gender is a commandment for everyone. It would be just as accurate to claim the exact reverse, that righteousness flows from women to men.
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A quick google suggests that is not the case any more:
These sorts of public-facing nonbinding documents are often missing important context which committed members understand. Everybody knows that the banning of polygamy was a reaction to political circumstances (Utah wanted to become a state, and congress was reluctant to condone polygamy), not a reaction to divine revelation about the nature of the eternal law. If a man's celestial wife dies, and he remarries in the temple, he now has two celestial wives for eternity. I couldn't find anything definitive, but it seems like there are certain circumstances where a man may be sealed to multiple living women at the same time, even if they aren't civilly "married".
I mean this is explicitly what the revelation itself was about, according to public-facing documents. The subtext was not hidden, nor is it even accurate to call it "subtext"--the commandment was rescinded explicitly due to political circumstances.
https://newsroom.churchofjesuschrist.org/article/polygamy-latter-day-saints-and-the-practice-of-plural-marriage#:~:text=The%20practice%20began%20during%20the,been%20for%20over%20120%20years.
If you read the actual declaration it is even more clear that it's a change made explicitly for political purposes. It doesn't even mention any revelation.
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Right. It still leads into conflict with the bit of text from the book of mormon against it and whether or not his existing wife would consent to the polygamy, but I'll concede the point. It is certainly clear the only reason the church walked back the act of sealing men to multiple wives was because of pressure from the country. If the leaders felt the country and rest of the world became more amenable to it, a new revelation would come out reinstituting the policy.
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Was he proposing marriage before sex?
For all we know he may have been. Others in this thread have noted the lack of any actual touching. Maybe he did just want to share a bed together in the temporal realm. It's not any weirder than soaking.
EDIT: To be clear, I still think the default hypothesis is that he was trying to get his dick wet, but I don't want to completely discount bizarre-sounding Mormon explainations.
Soaking is a myth. Members of the LDS church find both that, and the behavior Ballard's been accused of, bizarre and sinful.
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