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Notes -
Yes, and how does textualism determine what words in a statute mean? It uses things like logic, common sense, and MQD. The reason I compare it to declaring textualism illogical is because logic is one thing which underlies textualism. Textualism as a philosophy relies on determining the meaning of words, yes, but logic and MQD make up the foundation which textualism relies upon even before its theories/doctrines come into play at all.
Is this true? My understanding was that textualism does consider historical context etc. when determining the meaning of words. If not, I will have to rethink my support of textualism.
re: "words have meanings", that was just an example of a broad guideline. It's impossible to objectively determine the exact meaning of every word, but judges must do so as best they can. I drew a connection between that and MQD, which seems similarly broad and similarly necessary.
The excerpt reads:
I think this is pretty consistent with what I'm saying.
Yes. See here and here.
In that case pure textualism definitely seems lacking, though I'd argue that (as with most things) a push to "always interpret laws only as their text" is really only a push to do so more often. In any case MQD seems to synthesize textualism with common sense in a way that solves that problem.
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