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Is that in evidence? Notably the segregation laws in question would have allowed Rosa Parks to push you in front of a bus she could only sit in the back of. She would have been prosecuted for murder but that is still possible today.
It seems a just so story which can be matched by another just-so story where the act of segregation and legalized racism is what fueled animus towards whites, and so not having segregation would have been better.
Things like blacks pushing people in front of subway trains don't happen randomly or in a single step. It takes years of wearing down the barriers that used to be in place to keep behaviors like that in check - even lifting those barriers didn't immediately result in the things in this thread (any item in there is a thousand times worse than the dreaded racially assigned bus seating):
https://twitter.com/GodCloseMyEyes/status/1414619671056297984
First you attack the cultural confidence which is reinforced by things like bus seating, then people test the new limits to see what's actually permitted (as people do when the rules are uncertain) and when the new rules turn out to be "everything is permitted as long as you're attacking enemies of the Regime" then you get an orgy of violence.
Even asking the question of "did this specific change produce that specific result" is asking the wrong question. The motivation for that change was ostensibly because the old rule wasn't permitted in the legal framework. On a technical level that assertion is absurd - "oh that rule was there but no one knew it for 50 years" - but even that's not important; grant for a moment that this wasn't just a transparent power grab - did it produce good results? This wasn't an isolated change and it wasn't made as one or thought of as one - it was a cultural revolution to change the way of life of a lot of people. Was it a positive change? Was it such a positive change that it justifies the crimes detailed in one single town in that thread above? Why? Just to live more in line with what a document says when no one who signed that document would even have understood it to imply the rules imposed? Absurd.
The fact that it wasn't actually justified by holy document is just the cherry on top of the disingenuousness sundae.
None of this ranting repeat of what you wrote above changes the fact that you have yet to provide any actual evidence of your proposed causal process. Based on some recent discussion in the CW thread (I believe), it seems like a lot of the specific issue of "pushing people in front of trains" is schizophrenics going off their meds. Their behavior is not based on a logical reasoning process and therefore cannot be influenced by a cultural more that (allegedly) allows some people to get away with such behavior.
Yet somehow it happens now and didn't happen 10 years ago. "He was arrested 36 times for violent assaults and let go each time" has something to do with it as well as noticing that "deranged men" (euphemism used in one of the news reports by the only source willing to actually notice these things happening) are sane enough to shove smaller, less dangerous people in front of subway trains. Oh look, there is a logical reasoning process going on there related directly to cause, effect and consequences. Calling the person "schizophrenic" doesn't remove that and if it did then that's all the more reason to immediately execute those people as an uncontrollable danger to everyone around them.
Do you have a source for this claim? Or that it has to do with race, rather than "mental health" advocacy?
Establish your claims, don't just assert.
...what the fuck? How the hell is this a reasonable response? Most of these people are fine as long as they are on their meds. If you want a program to require them to take said medication (or remain in a mental hospital), fine. Executing them all is completely unreasonable.
No, there aren't newspaper reports from 10 years ago saying "today no one got shoved in front a subway train".
On the other hand, there are videos of it today.
This is an amazingly disingenuous request intended to both shift the burden of proof away from you - not great but part of the jockeying - but also to set yourself up as the arbiter - "sorry, just not proven to my satisfaction - maybe they were covering up all those subway deaths" and should actually result in a banning if people want this place to have good norms of discussion.
I don't care at all about the hypothetical situation where a subway murderer might be fine. If you want to argue "well, he's not responsible for his actions - couldn't help himself - schizophrenia and all" then the appropriate response is "well then obviously he must be executed and very quickly because a man who can't understand cause and effect who enjoys hurting people is basically a rabid dog".
So no, you don't have any evidence, beyond a vague impression of news reports. Glad to see that you want to engage in racial segregation and execute the mentally ill based on such ironclad evidence.
I didn't argue those things.
You clearly have no interest in a good faith discussion; I look forward to the time when you get yourself banned.
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