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This has been the case for a long time — the thing is that genetic distance within, say, white people is much larger than the genetic distance to a black person. I mean, the only genes that differ are essentially about some obscure pigmentation. As far as the science of the human genome goes, "ethnicity" has always been a cultural thing, not a genetic one.
This isn't even remotely the case. Genes involving intelligence, impulse control, self-confidence, aggression, and so on differ quite a bit. Almost certainly also genes involving parental investment, promiscuity, industriousness, and many others.
Brain size, bone structure, proportion of fast vs slow twitch muscle fibers, etc. Hormonal timings, e.g. blacks generally hit puberty about a year before whites. We are very different.
Part of the problem here is that research into these things is borderline forbidden.
None of these phenotypes experience significant selection pressure on the genetic level, they are strongly influenced by the environment (take e.g. lead in gasoline), and variability in the white populate alone is so high that even population-level differences between blacks and whites would to amount to meaningless differences on average.
The onset of puberty is controller by many factors — most environmental, nourishment being the most important.
Does this mean that you won't cite source for any of your claims?
You know I had originally dismissed this post as trolling and moved on, but it's been on my mind for some reason, and I'd like to stop and ask just in case you're serious. From my perspective the amount of bad-faith canards you're throwing out doesn't look like an accident, but, you know, maybe I'd actually believe that stuff but for the grace of God. So who can say?
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This is often repeated, but I think this is false (Lewontins Fallacy?)
Reading the Wikipedia article on Lewontin's Fallcy, it appears that the main difficulty is to make the statement precise. The cited reference Witherspoon 2007 explains:
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I believe it's also very much not true if you go by fst, but I'm not exactly an expert
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Is this true? I would think the genetic distance between two Europeans to be smaller than that between a European and an SS African. The last common ancestor between any two Europeans is much more recent than between a European and a Sub-saharan African (something like 1,000 years ago vs 80,000 years ago).
I think the person you're replying to is talking about within the US, where supposedly most "African-Americans" have at least some white ancestry, and they seem to be comparing against the largest genetic difference you'll find between white Americans, not the average or most common case. Certainly the context of the larger conversation is about something that primarily applies to the US.
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As a matter of scientific record, yes. I think that Witherspoon 2007 explains the situation nicely:
The very short argument is this: A sub-saharan African will very likely have dark skin color, whereas an European will likely have light skin color, due to selection pressure on Vitamin D und UV protection. You can distinguish populations with this. However, that's about it — most other genes face little selection pressure, or similar selection pressure which is not dependent on population location. Some genes do face selection pressure, e.g. Italy contained many swamps and was prone to Malaria, so the incidence of hemophilia from this location is higher, because that correlates with protection against Malaria.
The versions of homo which did have significant genetic differences to be separate species, such as Neanderthals, have already died out.
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