VoiceOfLogic
I happen to be, unfortunately, the first human super-intelligence.
What a sad tragedy to see what others can't see.
User ID: 1999
Conversely, an interesting thing to do is to practice adversarial writing, where you deliberately choose to defend the anti-thesis of something, especially if you agree with the initital thesis, or find someone willing to be adversarial.
Then after that exercise is done, one should observe how intellectually honest he has been and how much is he being deaf/selective to the presented evidence. I find most mottizens to be incapable of ambivalent fine grained discussions. It's a disease.
I you want I can defend/attack ~any position about any tribalizing topic, pick one.
VoiceOfLogic
1yr ago
Thx, I haven't done physics in a while :)
VoiceOfLogic
1yr ago
Nice
VoiceOfLogic
1yr ago
Thank you
each doubling of distance equals eight times the volume.
How did you arrive to that conclusion (assuming homogenous 3D spread)?
VoiceOfLogic
1yr ago
Sorry english is not my native language so it can rarely albeit sometimes be ambiguous to me, by "I support"
do you mean that's your job? Or do you mean that you are a philanthropist that sponsor original research in pharmacology?
I have an extreme interest in maximizing lifespan/healthspan, you should look for example into mitochondria targeted antioxidants.
VoiceOfLogic
1yr ago
Only ukrainerussiareport will show the true Ukrainian military hardware losses which is necessary to have predictive power and when/if its defense capabilities will break down.
Ukrainerussiareport is mostly not propaganda btw, much less so than are the other subs, especially since many commenters are pro-ukrainian which give a certain rare balance.
VoiceOfLogic
1yr ago
critical thinking. And I do not necessarily believe this to be fully teachable because I think abilities of comparative and analogical reasoning may be neurologically/genetically/IQ limited by the space of one's working memory along with the natural interconnectivity of one's brain.
I believe in some extent to critical periods for learning to think, and debiasing, but can we please stop the ineptia/hypocrisy and admit we live in a degenerate world that is at the level 0 of teaching critical thinking/epistemology, it's not that it's hard to do it is that we are not doing it at all, ever.
Is the logic not the same with someone wearing a mask outdoors (especially if they are alone, for the steelman)?
sorry I wasn't focusing much while reading, are you comparing color dilution in water with a virus pathogen dilution in air?
Intrinsically, that seems mostly fallacious, a drop of color in water will easily get diluted and indeed the idea you want to express is that spatial dispersion is a non-linear (exponential?) phenomenon on the density of the agent (color).
While that is right, a drop of color in water with enough dilution will become invisible and sparse but viral load IMO does not need to reach high level to contaminate someone. It is invisible from the start but even when it has dispersed and reached low density, contrary to your coloring agent, it can still be potent and contaminate, of course the viral load needed is virus dependent and immunosuppressed dependent.
The main salient co-argument towards the viability of not wearing a mask when alone is because the virus does not survive after 24/48h? and therefore it does not persists nor accumulate. Also possibly gravity make it trapped/stays on the ground?
The other obvious salient argument is that chronic mask use is potentially very toxic, a multiplier of ageing and of teratogeny.
What I want to show is that the dose potency of a coloring agent being visible and a pathogen/toxin being non-negligible can be order of magnitudes apparts and therefore the reasoning is semi-contingent and a faillible heuristic. See for example https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Median_lethal_dose#:~:text=oral%2C%20injection%2C%20inhalation-,1%C2%A0ng/kg%20(estimated),-0.000000001
no free lunches
also there can be free lunches, let's not fall for https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zero-sum_thinking or e.g. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lump_of_labour_fallacy
Otherwise I tend to agree with the majority of things you say, that was decently written.
VoiceOfLogic
1yr ago
Then you suffer from a very potent information exposure black hole, thankfully you can see the other side of the coin on https://old.reddit.com/r/UkraineRussiaReport
example of great footage probably downvoted to hell and therefore hidden on combatfootage
IMO that's a very great footage to contemplate how inept war performance is in the real world.
(not saying that Ukraine soldiers are more inept than russian ones, but that all are, confused, maximizing their survival and fake firing in the general direction) This observation has major implications.
but this subreddit most potent usefulness is not showing ukrainian losses but that it allows to be much more informed about issues in Ukraine, including human rights abuses, accounts of government corruption, etc.
Zelensky to run for re-election? What elections are we talking about, 90% of the parties have been banned
Martial law in Ukraine was declared on 24 February 2022. On 15 March 2022 the Parliament deprived Opposition MP Illia Kyva of his mandate.[9]
On 20 March 2022, several political parties were suspended by the National Security and Defense Council of Ukraine for the period of martial law:[10][11]
Opposition Platform — For Life
Derzhava
Left Opposition
Nashi
Opposition Bloc
Party of Shariy
Progressive Socialist Party of Ukraine
Socialist Party of Ukraine
Socialists
Union of Left Forces
Volodymyr Saldo Bloc
The property of the party and all its branches were transferred to the state.[13] The decision was open to appeal at the Supreme Court of Ukraine within 20 days.[13] At the time Opposition Platform – For Life was one of two of the 20 March 2022 suspended parties that was subject to an attempt of getting banned in court, Opposition Platform – For Life was the only party to defend and participate in the case.[13] (The other party was the Progressive Socialist Party of Ukraine.[67]) On 15 September 2022 the final appeal against the party's ban was dismissed by the Supreme Court of Ukraine, meaning that the party was fully banned in Ukraine.[14]
Ukraine judiciary system is utterly broken and has become among other things, an active puppet of the U.S, see for example this fascinating video from Joe Biden, you'd believe it's too big and blatant to be true but no the man even brag about it, so potent!
https://youtube.com/watch?v=azLKK0xTOFI
Let's not forget "fuck EU" or the fact Biden personally said the night of the sponsored coup, to Yanukovich on the phone that it was over and he would get killed if he didn't flee to Russia.
a to justify counter-corruption purges of the Ukrainian government.
Zelensky actively promoted the maintenance of the corruption by recently appointing a corrupt person at the top of the top anti-corruption organism of Ukraine.
IMHO It's hard to know what is the moral compass of Zelensky but he is at best utterly powerless.
Zelensky was elected for promising peace in the donbas but he quickly learnt the hardway that he was not the man in commands, it is the military that ruled and still rules Ukraine https://www.kyivpost.com/post/6652
https://youtube.com/watch?v=SIaTAnhgMT4
I expect NATO weapon shipments to hit a qualitative and quantitative critical mass by late 2023 that makes Ukraine favored in the early 2024
What kind of delusion is that? Even with the west support it will slow down but not at all reverse the attrition losses.
This will not favor Ukraine, whatever that means, Ukraine because of the extreme non-linearity of the effect of attrition losses on defense capabilities, should and will stay in a defensive position with a goal of 1) reducing hardware losses and 2) slowing down russia territorial expansion, in that order of priority.
Most of their tank/IFV/aircrafts/and anti-air (S300s) budget has been spent and we have no signal they have factories running making new hardware, IIRC the T80 factories are located in Kharkiv, too close to the front.
While russia also suffer from attrition, their existing reserves being considerably larger, they will obviously win this attritive war, unless the U.S sends tanks in the thousands at a minimum.
That's for the quantitative argument, as for the qualitative one, I have extensively debunked this ego-boosting myth in many of my past comments.
Note that this ideal is an artificially enhanced look that exploit supra-normal stimulus and androgynousity, for example the brows are very masculine albeit supra-masculine.
https://www.edge.org/response-detail/27203
It is an interesting feature that for women to exert peak visual stimulation they require for some feature to reach levels more masculine than men themselves.
VoiceOfLogic
1yr ago
No idea althouth I'm curious what's you're studying?
I never thought about it but the disappearance of past african/asian trade routes with europe and therefore of key assets such as spices would have stimulated europe to rebuild those routes by itself.
The european exploration is often seen as an era of discoveries (new foods and kinds of tools/arts) but in a big part it was in fact a restauration of a previous state of wealth and cultural imports.
As shown the radhanite were the leading group maintaining the previous roman merchant routes from the year 700 to the year 900.
About their disappearance
The causes may have been the fall of Tang China in 908, followed by the collapse of the Khazarian state at the hands of the Rus' some sixty years later (circa 968–969). Trade routes became unstable and unsafe, a situation exacerbated by the rise of expansionist Turco-Persianate states, and the Silk Road largely collapsed for centuries
They were replaced by the Italian city states but the issue with your theory is that it has a gap of 500-600 years, although I have not studied exactly when was the silk road restored, especially for spices.
It seems it was still partly working for some assets such as slaves.
Had the europeans an active desire to restaure the silk road as early as the 900s but couldn't before the 1400-1500s because of technological limitations? (ships technologies?)
edit marco polo is in 1270 but still a 400 years gap
The Mongol expansion throughout the Asian continent from around 1207 to 1360 helped bring political stability and re-established the Silk Road
300 years and not restored by europeans
VoiceOfLogic
1yr ago
Usually things are trivial and just works, but not all technological ecosystems are equal, for example while javascript programs works fine, python programs often have dependencies issues (too old/out of sync). If the error message is a dependency version conflict yes, you can't solves them by yourself easily, often the thing to do in those cases is to look at the corresponding github issue or to open one. That way you can offload the troubleshooting on others or find out people have already shared a solution
VoiceOfLogic
1yr ago
Thanks
VoiceOfLogic
1yr ago
Sorry what does HBD mean?
VoiceOfLogic
1yr ago
Just saying:
installing software dependencies to run it is very simple you can learn it in 15 minutes.
It depends on the environment but e.g. for the popular Javascript command line applications you need to install the Javascript virtual machine (NodeJs), it will install for you Npm, the node package manager which allow you to install dependencies.
You git clone a JS repository you find cool.
you run npm install
and to run the app it depends, could be npx run or npm run/serve, but that detail is described in the Readme file of the github repository see section how to install/run
For other programming languages, the steps are very similar and straigthforward.
IIRC Chinese ships were capable of long range exploration? They would more have been bottlenecked by a lack of investment and especially by a non-colonialist/deshumanizing culture
e.g. Chinese went to sommalia a century before the europeans https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chinese_exploration#/media/File:ShenDuGiraffePainting.jpg
The question is, could they have done it much earlier? When exactly did they developed such ships technology?
But there are much more potent historic anachonisms, such as the Indo-greek kingdom https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-Greek_Kingdom
or the fact greeks went in the Xinjiang, China
What is less known is if those anachronic explorers managed to do knowledge/technology/culture/artefact transfers.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chronology_of_European_exploration_of_Asia
The radhanites seems remarkably interesting https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Radhanite
That is a very interesting question, although there is a converse question that might be insightful too, why hasn't China (or civilization X) reached the industrial revolution and/or the scientific/analytical/empirical culture?
I don't remember exactly the name but China had its glory scientific/economic period in a way, I don't remember the name nor the specific reasons exactly but it seems there has been a cultural shift, china entered in an era of opulance (richest country in the middle age) but of stagnation and of obscurantism, it saws a significant scientific decline because of allegedly a change of epistemological culture, IIRC induced in parts by confucianism.
Of course even in that era of decline there was some outliers but this hypothetical epistemological hibernative state china had entered was long lasting and it is an unknown how many centuries/millenias would have been needed for China to reverse from this shift, had they not met the west.
About India I know much less, India had one of the first if not the first civilization on earth, the indus valley,
possibly the first well thought city architecture, and one of the first proto-written language (but maybe not an actual language),
that civilization mysteriously disappeared.
Then much later, they were populated by a mysterious central asian "empire" that has from ethnic origin "europe" and spoke a lost indo-european language, therefore that would make Indians much more ethnically or culturally european than the Chinese but no idea how much it diluted or lasted.
Another interesting question is, would have europe developed the industrial revolution without the technological transfer it received from China and the middle-east?
e.g. has Guttemberg been influenced by Chinese press/paper technologies?
has the import of explosive powder influenced research and conceptions about the sources of energies?
etc
IIRC the excellent book The Epic Quest to Solve the Great Mystery of Earth’s Magnetism shows that China influenced or brought the compass to Europe, which is key for navigation.
I believe those imports of non-western technologies have had a major impact and probably, a necessary impact.
why Western Europe and its descendants are the world’s most influential civilization of the past few centuries?
one could speculate on IQ/racial theories but I doubt that is necessary, it might have given an edge to europeans but even so it's not studied enough today, e.g. chinese people have generally high IQ so we would need another more selective metric of cognitive abilities to diffferentiate an ability to innovate.
Genes that drive a tendency towars anti-conformism, a rejection of authority, and a megalomanism seems key to scientific disruptors.
Let's not forget that access to food also is a big factor.
But the main drive was not racially based but cultural and institutional/organizational.
The rise of early proto-capitalism/access to private funding for research has been a key driver.
IMHO it was not a given that the european would be the firsts since it seems catholicism was actively and potently obscurantist.
another question is about the blockers of past civilizations, for example it is notorious that a Roman centurion implied that Rome was not actively funding the building of engineering machines because he was afraid it would drive a tremendous rise in unemployement..
Of course one should not forget about the economic and energetic multiplier that are slaves.
VoiceOfLogic
1yr ago
Could you share a gist of what it says?
I've read the intro of the wiki page on the hajnal line and it just seems from a quick glance to be a refuted ? theory on a fertility divide.
It is well known that fertility is inverselly correlated with wealth so that divide might have been partially true.
VoiceOfLogic
1yr ago
Is this like most interesting topics on earth, something where humanity has pathologically, systematically stopped the depth of the discourse at the introductory level, or has this author or any human on earth cared enough to specify a semblance of a roadmap towards the stated hedonistic goal via bioengineering?
Where can I find a e.g. an exhaustive list of pharmacological pathways that promote positive valence qualias and of pharmacological pathways that downregulate or dampen negative-valence qualias?
VoiceOfLogic
1yr ago
It's be really nice to have an online collaborative website where we can highlight sentences in books per thematic/criterion of highlight.
We have so much content in this world and the signal to noise ratio is so low, that's the usual ineptia I guess
VoiceOfLogic
1yr ago
I might do it if I find the motivation, we'll see..
Update: I serendipitely stumbled upon betahistidine and it seems like a no-brainer low hanging fruit from a quick glance, acting as an ear selective vasodilator https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Betahistine#:~:text=Primarily%2C%20it%20is%20a%20weak%20agonist%20on%20the%20H1%20receptors%20located%20on%20blood%20vessels%20in%20the%20inner%20ear.%20This%20gives%20rise%20to%20local%20vasodilation%20and%20increased%20permeability%2C%20which%20helps%20to%20reverse%20the%20underlying%20problem%20of%20endolymphatic%20hydrops.
edit doesn't seem very effective but good to have in a polyphamacotherapy
maybe synergetyc with pge2
note: I'm pretty sure there are drugs that considerably increase the chance of becoming homosexual/bi, such as the famous trenolone
https://old.reddit.com/r/moreplatesmoredates/comments/sabei2/why_does_tren_turn_some_people_gay/
The thing is, every male is gay (bi), this is a basic fact yet it is taboo and everyone is in denial.
By gay I don't mean to be sexually attracted by the male body but to derive more pleasure from prostate orgasms, because that is obviously the male g-spot and the orgasm it provides in order of magnitudes more potent than penile stimulation.
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